MCQs in Oral Pathology (With Explanatory Answers) Sundeep S Bhagwath
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Developmental Anomalies of Orofacial Structures Including Teeth1

  1. Which amongst the following is not a cause of acquired micrognathia?
    1. Infection of mastoid
    2. Trauma to TMJ
    3. Infection of the middle ear
    4. Infection of inner ear
  2. Which amongst the following is not a clinical feature of micrognathia?
    1. Steep mandibular angle
    2. Severe retrusion of chin
    3. Prominent chin button
    4. Deficient chin button
  3. Indicate the incorrect statement regarding macrognathia
    1. It is commonly associated with Paget's disease
    2. Patients tend to have a short ramus
    3. Excessive condylar growth predisposes to macrognathia
    4. Patients have a prominent chin button
  4. Facial hemiatrophy is not associated with which of the following conditions?
    1. Bell's palsy
    2. Trigeminal neuralgia
    3. Jacksonian epilepsy
    4. Delayed eruption of teeth
  5. Cleft of the primary palate occurs
    1. Anterior to incisive foramen
    2. Posterior to incisive foramen
    3. Between lateral incisor and canine
    4. Between canine and 1st premolar2
  6. Minimal form of clefting of palate is seen in
    1. Soft palate
    2. Uvula
    3. Hard palate and soft palate
    4. Posterior to incisive foramen
  7. Increased risk of development of squamous cell carcinoma is associated with which of the following developmental conditions?
    1. Cheilitis granulomatosa
    2. Heck's disease
    3. Cheilitis glandularis
    4. Fibromatosis gingivae
  8. If a patient has multiple intestinal polyps, cutaneous melanocytic macules, rectal prolapse and gynecomastia, he/she is probably suffering from
    1. Gardner syndrome
    2. Goltz-Gorlin syndrome
    3. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
    4. Grinspan syndrome
  9. Fordyce's granules is heterotopic collection of _______ in oral cavity
    1. Sweat glands
    2. Salivary glands
    3. Hair follicles
    4. Sebaceous glands
  10. Heck's disease is caused by ________ virus
    1. Herpes simplex
    2. Human papilloma
    3. Varicella zoster
    4. Epstein-Barr
  11. A well-circumscribed, soft, sessile, bilateral, nodular mass which is located lingual to mandibular canines between mucogingival junction and free gingiva could most likely be
    1. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
    2. Pyogenic granuloma
    3. Retrocuspid papilla
    4. Peripheral ossifying fibroma3
  12. Which amongst the following is not a cause of macroglossia?
    1. Hemangioma
    2. Lymphangioma
    3. Down's syndrome
    4. Leukemia
  13. Which one of the following is a synonym of fissured tongue?
    1. Lingua nigra
    2. Scrotal tongue
    3. Geographic tongue
    4. Lingual varix
  14. Median rhomboid glossitis occurs
    1. Anterior to circumvallate papillae
    2. Posterior to circumvallate papillae
    3. Tip of tongue
    4. Lateral border of tongue
  15. Histopathological features of benign migratory glossitis closely resemble that of
    1. Lichen planus
    2. Psoriasis
    3. Systemic lupus erythematosus
    4. Erythema multiforme
  16. Amongst the following causes, the least probable cause of hairy tongue is
    1. Smoking
    2. Poor oral hygiene
    3. Epstein-Barr virus
    4. Radiation therapy
  17. A nodular mass near base of tongue with presenting complaints of dyspnea and dysphagia and without a demonstrable main thyroid gland could most probably be
    1. Reactive lymphoid aggregate
    2. Lymphoid hamartoma
    3. Lingual thyroid nodule
    4. Lymphoepithelial cyst
  18. Stafne cyst/Stafne defect is an aberrant collection of _____ gland tissue within a deep depression in the mandible
    1. Sweat glands
    2. Sebaceous glands
    3. Mucous glands
    4. Salivary glands4
  19. Apart from maxillary lateral incisor, which other tooth is commonly affected by microdontia?
    1. Mandibular premolars
    2. Maxillary canines
    3. Mandibular central incisors
    4. Third molars
  20. Fusion of teeth involves a confluence of
    1. Enamel only
    2. Enamel and dentin
    3. Dentin only
    4. Cementum only
  21. In association with which syndrome does talon cusp usually occur?
    1. Rubinstein-Taybi
    2. Down
    3. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia
    4. Gardner
  22. With which variation in coronal morphology is dens evaginatus associated?
    1. Peg-shaped laterals
    2. Shovel-shaped incisors
    3. Dilaceration
    4. Distomolar
  23. Dilated odontome is a synonym of
    1. Dens invaginatus
    2. Talon cusp
    3. Dens evaginatus
    4. Macrodontia
  24. The base of invagination of crown/root in dens invaginates contains
    1. Dystrophic dentin
    2. Dystrophic enamel
    3. Necrotic pulp tissue
    4. Dystrophic cementum
  25. Which bone disorder should be considered for differential diagnosis in case of a finding of generalized hypercementosis?
    1. Paget's disease
    2. Fibrous dysplasia
    3. Osteopetrosis
    4. Osteogenesis imperfecta
  26. If a patient shows signs of kinky hair, osteosclerosis at base of skull, brittle nails along with hypomaturation—hypoplastic amelogenesis imperfecta, he/she is most probably suffering from5
    1. Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
    2. Klinefelter syndrome
    3. Cranioectodermal syndrome
    4. Tricho-dento-osseous syndrome
  27. The appearance of normal thickness enamel with extremely thin dentin and abnormally large pulp chamber is indicative of
    1. Amelogenesis imperfecta
    2. Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type I
    3. Dentinogenesis Type III
    4. Dentin dysplasia Type II
  28. Loss of organization of radicular dentin with subsequent shortening of root length is a feature of
    1. Dentin dysplasia Type I
    2. Dentin dysplasia Type II
    3. Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type II
    4. Dentinogenesis imperfecta Type III
  29. Which amongst the following diseases is capable of producing developmental alterations in teeth?
    1. Tetanus
    2. Chickenpox
    3. Diphtheria
    4. Syphilis
  30. Lack of development of six or more teeth is denoted by the term
    1. Oligodontia
    2. Hypodontia
    3. Anodontia
    4. Partial anodontia
  1. (d) Acquired micrognathia is of postnatal origin and results usually from disturbance in the area of the tempo-romandibular joint like infection of mastoid, middle ear or joint itself.
  2. (c) Micrognathia is characterized by severe retrusion of chin, steep mandibular angle and a deficient chin button.
  3. (b) Macrognathia may be associated with other diseases like Paget's disease, fibrous dysplasia, acromegaly, etc. and shows features like increased ramus height and length of6 mandibular body, decreased maxillary length, prominent chin button increased gonial angle, etc.
  4. (a) Progressive hemifacial atrophy is an uncommon, degenerative condition characterized by atrophic changes affecting one side of the face. Possible causes include trophic malfunction of the cervical lymphatic nervous system, trauma and viral or Borrelia infection.
  5. (a) A complete cleft palate includes cleft of hard palate, soft palate and uvula. Cleft anterior to the incisive foramen is called cleft of primary palate, while cleft posterior to incisive foramen is defined as cleft of secondary palate.
  6. (b) Clefting occurs in a wide range of severity. Clefting of uvula is the minimal form of cleft.
  7. (c) It is an unusual clinical presentation of cheilitis that develops in response to various sources of chronic irritation. There is progressive enlargement and eversion of lower lip that significantly exposes it to actinic damage which may be a potential predisposing factor to development of squamous cell carcinoma.
  8. (c) It is an autosomal dominant, inherited disorder characterized by multiple intestinal polyps and concomitant mucocutaneous melanocytic macules.
  9. (d) Occurrence of sebaceous glands in oral cavity may result from inclusion in oral cavity, of ectoderm having some of the potentialities of skin.
  10. (b) It is caused by human papillomavirus HPV-13 and probably HPV-32. It is different from other HPV lesions in that it produces extreme acanthosis and hyperplasia of stratum spinosum with minimal surface projection or connective tissue proliferation.
  11. (c) Retrocuspid papilla is a developmental lesion microscopically similar to giant cell fibroma. It occurs on the gingiva lingual to the mandibular cuspid, is frequently bilateral and typically appears as a small, pink papule that measures less than 5 mm in diameter.
  12. (d) It is an uncommon condition characterized by enlargement of the tongue. The enlargement may be caused by a wide variety of conditions including both congenital malformations and acquired diseases. The most frequent causes are vascular malformations and muscular hypertrophy.
  13. 7(b) Scrotal/fissured tongue is a common condition characterized by presence of numerous grooves on dorsal surface of tongue. Cause is uncertain but may be heredity. Aging and local environmental factors may also play some role.
  14. (a) Clinically median rhomboid glossitis appears as a well-demarcated erythematous zone that affects the midline, posterior dorsal tongue and often is asymptomatic.
  15. (b) Hyperparakeratosis, spongiosis, acanthosis, elongation of epithelial rete ridges and collections of neutrophils (Munro abscesses) are also seen in psoriasis.
  16. (c) Epstein-Barr virus is responsible for causing hairy leukoplakia which occurs on the lateral surfaces of tongue and is associated with HIV or other immunosuppressive conditions.
  17. (c) Lingual thyroids may range from small, asymptomatic nodular lesions to large masses that can block the airway. The most common clinical symptoms are dysphagia, dysphonia, and dyspnea. Diagnosis is best established by thyroid scan using technetium 99m.
  18. (d) Stafne defect presents as an asymptomatic radiolucency below the mandibular canal in the posterior mandible, between the molar teeth and the angle of the mandible.
  19. (d) Isolated microdontia within an otherwise normal dentition is not uncommon. The maxillary lateral incisor is affected most frequently, followed by third molars.
  20. (b) Fusion is defined as a single-enlarged tooth or joined (i.e. double) tooth in which the tooth count reveals a missing tooth when the anomalous tooth is counted as one.
  21. (a) A talon cusp (dens evaginatus of anterior tooth) is a well-delineated additional cusp that is located on the surface of an anterior tooth and extends at least half the distance from the cementoenamel junction to the incisal edge.
  22. (b) Dens evaginatus is a cusp-like elevation of enamel located in the central groove or lingual ridge of the buccal cusp of permanent premolar or molar teeth. Frequently, dens evaginatus is seen in association with another variation of coronal anatomy, shovel-shaped incisors. Affected incisors demonstrate prominent lateral margins, creating a hollowed lingual surface that resembles the scoop of a shovel.
  23. 8(a) Dens invaginatus is a deep surface invagination of the crown or root that is lined by enamel. Two forms—coronal and radicular are recognized.
  24. (b) Coronal dens invaginatus has been classified into three major types. Type I exhibits an invagination that is limited to the crown. The invagination in Type II extends below the cementoenamel junction and ends in a blind sac that may or may not communicate with adjacent dental pulp. Large invaginations may become dilated and contain dystrophic enamel in the base of the dilatation. Type III extends through the root and perforates in the apical or lateral radicular area without any immediate communication with the pulp.
  25. (a) Paget's disease of bone is characterized by abnormal and anarchic resorption and deposition of bone and on radiographic examination, the teeth very commonly demonstrate extensive hypercementosis.
  26. (d) It is an autosomal dominant disorder in which hypomaturation as well as hypoplastic patterns of amelogenesis imperfecta are seen.
  27. (c) Dentinogenesis imperfecta is a hereditary developmental disturbance of the dentin in the absence of any systemic disorder. Type III dentinogenesis imperfecta, also called Brandywine isolate is characterized by isolated opalescent teeth. The appearance of normal thickness enamel in association with extremely thin dentin and dramatically enlarged pulps is called shell teeth.
  28. (a) This autosomal dominant disorder is also called rootless teeth because of the loss of organization of the root dentin which often leads to a shortened root length.
  29. (d) Congenital syphilis alters the formation of both the anterior teeth (Hutchinson's incisors) and the posterior teeth (Mulberry molars).
  30. (a) It is an autosomal dominant disorder with incomplete penetrance. Congenitally absent teeth are one of the most common dental developmental anomalies with third molars and maxillary lateral incisors being the most commonly developmentally missing teeth.