Key to Success Staff Nurses Recruitment Exam Abha Narwal, Honey Gangadharan
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SECTION D
719RECENT PAPERS

DSSSB PHN 20151

 
SECTION A
 
General Knowledge
1. Name of the producer of Rajni-starrer film ‘Linga’, who was allowed by the Madras High Court on 11-12-2014 to release-Linga on condition that the producer deposit ₹ 10 crore in the Court.
  1. Parvathamma Rajkumar
  2. Balaji Films
  3. AVM Productions
  4. Rockline Venkatesh
2. Name the Russian President whom Prime Minister Narendra Modi met recently during the World Diamond Conference in New Delhi:
  1. Le Yucheng
  2. Vladimir Putin
  3. Barack Obama
  4. None of these
3. United Nations has declared at India's initiative and with the support of 175 countries, ____________ as International day of Yoga.
  1. July 21st
  2. August 21st
  3. June 21st
  4. May 21st
4. Name the captain of the Indian team which played first cricket test against Australia at the Adelide Oval in December 2014.
  1. Rohit Sharma
  2. Murali Vijay
  3. Virat Kohli
  4. Anil Kumble
5. Name the place where Lord Krishna had del-ivered in message of Gita, where Vedavyasa wrote the epic of Mahabharatha.
  1. Ayodhya
  2. Dwaraka
  3. Hardwar
  4. Kurukshetra
6. Where is Humayun's Tomb located?
  1. Delhi
  2. Agra
  3. Hyderabad
  4. Aurangabad
7. The London house of the sovereign is called:
  1. White House
  2. Wall Street
  3. Buckingham Palace
  4. Independence Hall
8. The rainiest place in the world is:
  1. Walleale in Hawaili
  2. Cherrapunji
  3. Mount Abu
  4. Mawsynram
9. The secretariat of the Russian Government is located in:
  1. Kremlin
  2. Hague
  3. St. Petersburg
  4. Samara
10. Number of rooms in Rashtrapati Bhavan across four floors is:
  1. 300
  2. 340
  3. 350
  4. 250
11. Naya Paisa, introduced in India in __________ was renamed ‘Paisa’ in 1964.
  1. 1947
  2. 1950
  3. 1957
  4. 1960
12. The year credit cards came to India:
  1. 1971
  2. 1981
  3. 1985
  4. 1990722
13. A Chief Minister whose pet name is Tipu:
  1. Akhilesh Yadav
  2. Chandrababu Naidu
  3. Mulayam Singh Yadav
  4. Karunanidhi
14. Home Rule League was launched by _________ at Madras in 1915:
  1. Rajaram Mohan Roy
  2. Dada Bhai Naoroji
  3. Annie Besant
  4. None of these
15. Full Indian Constitution came into force on:
  1. 15-8-1974
  2. 26-1-1950
  3. 30-1-1948
  4. 2-10-1869
16. AIDS is caused by a:
  1. Bacteria
  2. Protozoa
  3. Helminth
  4. Virus
17. Who amongst the following was a blind poet who worshipped Krishna and spread Krishna Bhakti cult?
  1. Surdas
  2. Bihari
  3. Kabir
  4. Raskhan
18. Which of the following is correctly mat-ched?
  1. Kottayam-Kerala
  2. Trichur-Karnataka
  3. Tanjavur-Gujarat
  4. Puri-Assam
19. The vaccine against polio was developed by:
  1. Jonas Salk
  2. Edward Jenner
  3. Louis Pasteur
  4. Fleming
20. The Vitamin that helps in blood clotting is:
  1. Vitamin C
  2. Vitamin D
  3. Vitamin E
  4. Vitamin K
 
General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
Directions: (21-22): Which alternation cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word?
21. Integral
  1. Triangle
  2. Relating
  3. Alerting
  4. Entreaty
22. Rapprochement
  1. Reproach
  2. Represent
  3. Phantom
  4. Cement
23. Of the six members sitting in a row, ‘X’ is the left of ‘Q’ but on the right of ‘P’, ‘Y’ is on the right of ‘Q’ but is on the left of ‘Z’, ‘Z’ is to the left of ‘R’, who are at the extreme?
  1. QZ
  2. XZ
  3. QY
  4. PR
24. Which one of the followings correct?
6 + 4 + 9 + 15
  1. X,=,–
  2. X, –,=
  3. =,X, –
  4. –,X,=
25. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how is PEARL coded in that code?
  1. 29530
  2. 25413
  3. 24153
  4. 25430
26. If ‘+’ means ‘×’, ‘–’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘–’, ‘÷’ means ‘+’, 9 + 8 ÷ 8–4 x 9 = ?
  1. 65
  2. 26
  3. 17
  4. 11
27. Choose the one which does not belong to the group of the other three?
  1. Intentional
  2. Undesigned
  3. Deliberate
  4. Contemplated
28. In a certain code language 526 means ‘sky is blue’. ‘24’ means ‘blue color’ ‘436’ means ‘color is fun’. Which digit in that language mean ‘fun’?
  1. 2
  2. 3723
  3. 4
  4. 5
29. Bipin is taller than Ramdas who is shorter than Ashok Mohan is taller than Shankar but shorter than Ramdas. Ashok is shorter than Bipin. Who is the shortest?
  1. Bipin
  2. Ashok
  3. Ramdas
  4. Shankar
30. In a certain code, number 13479 is written as AQFJL, and 5268 is written as DMPN. How is 396824 written in that code?
  1. QLPNMJ
  2. QLPNMF
  3. QLPMNF
  4. QLPNDF
31. How many 9s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 4:
1 8 6 5 9 4 9 5 9 7 3 6 9 4 2 5 9 4 7 5
  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 4
32. Which word cannot be formed from the letter of ‘Comfortable’?
  1. Force
  2. Marble
  3. Inform
  4. Tram
33. If you write all the alphabets from A to Z in the reverse order, which will be the letter to the immediate left of M?
  1. N
  2. L
  3. O
  4. K
34. If ACEG: GECA:: PRTV:?
  1. TVRP
  2. VTRP
  3. TRVP
  4. VTPR
35. 6 2 3 11
3 1 8 12
4 6 ? 15
2 7 5 14
  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 5
  4. 2
36. School is related to headmaster in the same way Bank is related to:
  1. Branch
  2. Manager
  3. Children
  4. Players
37. 4, 6, 9, 13, 18, 24, ?
  1. 32
  2. 29
  3. 36
  4. 31
38. A, B, C, D, E, F are sitting in a circle facing the center. B is sitting diametrically opposite to F, A is the neighbor of B and C, E is the neighbor of D and F, D is sitting immediately to the right of B, C is to the right of F.
Who is sitting diametrically opposite to D?
  1. E
  2. F
  3. C
  4. A
39. A is the father of B, C is the sister of A and D. If D is the father of E, how is D related to B?
  1. Uncle
  2. Brother-in-law
  3. Nephew
  4. Father
40. P travels 6 km to the North, from there 5 km to the West, from there 11 km to the South. In what direction is he now from the starting point?
  1. South
  2. South-West
  3. South-East
  4. East
 
Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41. The arithmetic mean of a set of 20 observations is 15.8. The arithmetic mean increases by 0.4 when a new observation is added to the set. The new observation is:
  1. 15.8
  2. 20.4
  3. 24.2
  4. 22.4724
42. If the following data is to represented in a Pie diagram. Males Females Girls Boys Total 2500 2000 4000 1500 10000, then the angle of the sector corresponding to Boys is:
  1. 39°
  2. 54°
  3. 64°
  4. 60°
43. The numbers 3, 5, 7 and 9 have their respective frequencies x – 2, x + 2, x – 3 and x + 3. If the arithmetic mean is 6.5, then the value of x is:
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
44. A circle of radius 6 cm touches two concentric circles and encloses the smaller of them. If the radius of the larger of the two concentric circles is 8 cm, then the radius of the smaller one is:
  1. 2 cm
  2. 3 cm
  3. 4 cm
  4. 5 cm
45. If the angle subtended by an arc of a circle at its center is 62°, then the angle subtended by the same arc on the remaining part of the circle is:
  1. 30°
  2. 31°
  3. 32°
  4. 33°
46. The heights of two cones are equal and the perimeters of their bases are in the ratio 3:4. Then the ratio of their volumes is:
  1. 3:4
  2. 9:16
  3. 4:3
  4. 16:9
47. The sum of the internal angles of a regular polygon of ‘n’ sides, when expressed in right angles is:
  1. 2n–4
  2. N
  3. 2n
  4. n + 4
48. The harmonic means and Arithmetic mean of two numbers are 4 and 9 respectively. Find their Geometric mean.
  1. 5
  2. 6.5
  3. 6
  4. 5.5
49. If a certain sum of money becomes double in 12 years simple interest, what will be the rate of interest per annum?
  1. %
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. None of these
50. The difference between two numbers is 05 and their sum is 65. What will be their product?
  1. 1050
  2. 325
  3. 750
  4. 600
51.
52. A:B = 2:3, B:C = 2:5, A:B:C= ?
  1. 2:3:5
  2. 4:6:15
  3. 3:2:5
  4. 4:6:5
53. A shopkeeper sells two radios at ₹ 1,540 each. On one the gains 12% and on the other he loses 12%. What was the net result of the sale of both the radios?
  1. Neither loss nor gain
  2. Gain of ₹ 165
  3. Loss of ₹ 45
  4. None of these
54.
  4. 725
55.
  1. 4
  2. 2.69
  3. 3.91
  4. 4.21
56. A number 4.0 is wrongly read as 4.48. Find the percentage of error:
  1. 0.48%
  2. 12%
  3. 4%
  4. 6%
57. A can do a work in 80 days and B in 100 days. They work together for 20 days and then B goes away. In how many days will A finish the remaining work?
  1. 40 days
  2. 42 days
  3. 43 days
  4. 44 days
58. If 25 horses consume 18 quintal in 36 days, how long will 28 quintal last for 30 horses?
  2. 42 days
59. Calculate the difference between the compound interest and simple interest on ₹ 10,000 in two years at 5% per annum.
  1. ₹ 50
  2. ₹ 200
  3. ₹ 25
  4. ₹ 75
60. Find the least number that must be subtracted from 2433 so that the remainder is a perfect square.
  1. 22
  2. 32
  3. 42
  4. 33
726
 
Test of Language: English
Direction (Qs. 81-83): Identity which part (a), (b), (c) of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, your answer in (d)
81. Kiran asked the dealer (a)what was the price of that by cycle (b)/and whether it is really made in Germany (c). No error(d)727
82. I offered him part-time work (a)/but the turned it over saying that (b)/he would rather wait for a full-time job (c). No error (d)
83. Not one of the children have ever sung (a)/on any occasion (b)/in public before (c). No error(d)
Direction (Qs. 84-85): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the given word.
84. Empower
  1. Enable
  2. Disable
  3. Quality
  4. Encourage
85. Periodic
  1. Recurrent
  2. Regular
  3. Systematic
  4. Incalculable
Direction (Qs. 86-87): Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning to the given word.
86. Reckless
  1. Careful
  2. Thoughtful
  3. Rash
  4. Cautions
87. Obedience
  1. Submission
  2. Resistance
  3. Rebellion
  4. Violation
Direction (Qs. 88–89): Choose the misspelt word.
88.
  1. Compassionate
  2. Unlawful
  3. Enthusiastic
  4. Disgust
89.
  1. Indecisive
  2. Grammatical
  3. Violance
  4. Avenge
Direction (Qs. 90–91): Find the correct word for each expression.
90. A Remedy for all Diseases:
  1. Stoic
  2. Panacea
  3. Recoil
  4. Insolvent
91. Incapable of being seen through:
  1. Obsolete
  2. Medieval
  3. Incur
  4. Opaque
Direction (Qs. 92–95): Fill in the blank using the proper alternative.
92. Chaitra looks _________ the sapling as if it were her own child.
  1. Over
  2. For
  3. At
  4. After
93. It has been observed income ________ has widened between urban and rural areas.
  1. Tax
  2. Accretion
  3. Disparity
  4. Trait
94. The next meeting is __________ 15th April.
  1. at
  2. on
  3. by
  4. in
95. We arrived __________ the station in time.
  1. at
  2. on
  3. in
  4. by
96. How selfish they are!
The above sentence is a/an
  1. Assertive sentence
  2. Interrogative sentence
  3. Exclamatory sentence
  4. Imperative sentence
97. What type of pronoun is ‘himself’ in ‘He himself goes there’?
  1. Interrogative
  2. Indefinite
  3. Relative
  4. Emphatic
98. A verb which has, or desires to have an object is called a __________ verb.
  1. Transitive verb
  2. Intransitive verb
  3. Irregular verb
  4. None of these728
99. Plural of ‘mouse’ is
  1. mouses
  2. mouse
  3. mice
  4. mouces
100. Past tense of ‘choose’ is
  1. Chosen
  2. Chose
  3. Choosen
  4. Choise
 
SECTION B
 
Post Specific-Related Questions
101. The natural pacemaker of the heart is
  1. AV Node
  2. Sa Node
  3. Purkinje Fiber
  4. Bundle of His
102. Mitral valve is also referred as:
  1. Tricuspid valve
  2. Pulmonary valve
  3. Aortic valve
  4. Bicuspid valve
103. The gland that is located below Hypophyseal Fossa of Sphenoid bone is:
  1. Adrenal gland
  2. Thyroid gland
  3. Pituitary gland
  4. Thymus
104. The 10th cranial nerve is:
  1. Abducent
  2. Vagus
  3. Facial
  4. Hypoglossal
105. The middle layer of meninges is:
  1. Dura mater
  2. Piamater
  3. Arachnoid mater
  4. Choroid Plexus
106. The largest artery of human body is:
  1. Aorta
  2. Carotid Artery
  3. Subclavian Artery
  4. Pulmonary Artery
107. The anterior transparent part of the eye is:
  1. Pupil
  2. Conjunctiva
  3. Cornial
  4. Sclera
108. Identify the hip bone from the following:
  1. Femur
  2. Humerus
  3. Innominate
  4. Sacrum
109. The pH of blood is:
  1. 6.4
  2. 7.4
  3. 7.8
  4. 6.8
110. Life span of RBC's is:
  1. 120 days
  2. 80 days
  3. 200 days
  4. 60 days
111. The average Hb content of human blood is:
  1. 18–23 g/dl
  2. 14–16 g/dl
  3. 8–10 g/dl
  4. 16–20 g/dl
112. The effect of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) is
  1. Oliguria
  2. Anuria
  3. Increased urine output
  4. Decreased urine output
113. The collapse of the alveoli is prevented by:
  1. Cilia
  2. Mucus
  3. Surfactant
  4. Pleural Fluid
114. The average tidal volume is:
  1. 500 ml
  2. 250 ml
  3. 150 ml
  4. 600 ml
115. Differentiate the essential amino acid in the following:
  1. Proline
  2. Tyrosine
  3. Glycine
  4. Valine
116. Synthesis of glucose from noncarbohydrate source is referred as:
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Gluconeogenesis
  3. Glycogenolysis
  4. Glycogenesis729
117. BMI greater than 10 is considered as:
  1. Overweight
  2. Bulimia
  3. Obese
  4. Stout
118. The pressure set in autoclave for sterilization is:
  1. 15 lb
  2. 5 lb
  3. 10 lb
  4. 20 lb
119. The transmission of infection from the mother to the fetus through placenta is termed:
  1. Iatrogenic
  2. Teratogenic
  3. Nosocomia
  4. Fomites
120. The immunoglobulin found in mother's breast milk is:
  1. lg A
  2. lg M
  3. lg D
  4. lg E
121. Widal test is performed for identifying:
  1. Clostridium
  2. Salmonella
  3. Staphylococcus
  4. Meningococcul
122. Schick's test indicates the infection of:
  1. Measles
  2. Mumps
  3. Diphtheria
  4. Rubella
123. Rice water stools in observed in:
  1. Typhoid
  2. Cholera
  3. Food poisoning
  4. Amebic dysentery
124. The infection which is acquired from animals to human is:
  1. Plague
  2. Polio
  3. Pertussis
  4. Malaria
125. Syphilis is caused by:
  1. HIV
  2. Papilloma
  3. Neisseria
  4. Treponema
126. Malaria infection can be transmitted by:
  1. Blood transfusion
  2. Bite of infected female anopheles mosquito
  3. Vertical transmission through placental defect
  4. All of the above
127. The most common cause of Urinary Tract Infection (UTI) in community is:
  1. E. coli
  2. Klebsiella
  3. Citrobacter
  4. Proteus Vulgaris
128. Hookworm penetrates into the body by penetrating the skin of:
  1. Hand
  2. Foot
  3. Ear
  4. Head
129. The common cause for bacterial sore throat is:
  1. Streptococcus pyogenes
  2. Mycoplasma pneumonia
  3. Corynebacterium
  4. Mycobacterium
130. In lumbar puncture, the needle is inserted between:
  1. L3-L4
  2. L1-L2
  3. L4-L5
  4. L2-L3
131. In Babinski's reflex the movement of great toe undergoes:
  1. Dorsi extension
  2. Dorsiflexion
  3. Plantar flexion
  4. Plantar adduction
132. The position commonly used for pelvic surgeries is:
  1. Trendelenburg
  2. Sim's position
  3. Prone
  4. Supine
133. The apex beat is felt at which intercostals space?
  1. 3rd
  2. 4th
  3. 5th
  4. 6th730
134. The fasting blood sugar value is:
  1. 70–110 mg%
  2. 50–90 mg%
  3. 120–180 mg%
  4. 180–200 mg%
135. Bleeding from the nose is termed:
  1. Hyperemesis
  2. Hemoptysis
  3. Hematemesis
  4. Epistaxis
136. The color of bag in which the infectious solid wastes are disposed it:
  1. Red
  2. Black
  3. Blue
  4. Yellow
137. The compression to ventilation ratio in CPR in case of single rescuer is:
  1. 5:2
  2. 15:2
  3. 30:2
  4. 2:30
138. One tablespoon is equal to:
  1. 5 ml
  2. 15 ml
  3. 30 ml
  4. 20 ml
139. In triage yellow color indicates:
  1. Emergent
  2. Urgent
  3. Nonurgent
  4. Dead
140. An intentional touching of the patient's body without consent is termed:
  1. Negligence
  2. Assault
  3. Battery
  4. Malpractice
141. The style of leadership that dominates and commands the group is:
  1. Autocratic
  2. Democratic
  3. Situational
  4. Laiseez-faire
142. Abnormal lateral deviation of vertebral column is:
  1. Lordosis
  2. Kyphosis
  3. Scoliosis
  4. Osteoporosis
143. The abnormal dilatation of the wall of an artery is referred as:
  1. Aneurysm
  2. Hernia
  3. Atherosclerosis
  4. Phlebitis
144. The injury which nerve leads to ‘Wrist Drop’?
  1. Axillary nerve
  2. Median nerve
  3. Radial nerve
  4. Ulnar nerve
145. The paralysis of both lower limbs is known as:
  1. Hemiplegia
  2. Paraplegia
  3. Monoplegia
  4. Quadriplegia
146. Bell's Palsy is due to the injury of which cranial nerve?
  1. Trigeminal
  2. Facial
  3. Trochlear
  4. Hypoglossal
147. The urethra which opens on the dorsal surface of the penis is termed:
  1. Epispadiasis
  2. Hypospadiasis
  3. Cryptorchidism
  4. Anorchidism
148. The hyper secretion of growth hormone leads to:
  1. Cretinism
  2. Myxedema
  3. Acromegaly
  4. Grave's diseases
149. The complaint of Insulin secretion is noticed in:
  1. Type I diabetes
  2. Type II diabetes
  3. Secondary diabetes
  4. Diabetes insipidus
150. The inability to read small words held at usual distance is a primary feature of:
  1. Myopia
  2. Astigmatism
  3. Presbyopia
  4. Cataract731
151. Moon face with central obesity is noticed in:
  1. Addison's disease
  2. Cushing's syndrome
  3. Down syndrome
  4. Turner's syndrome
152. Kernig's sign is a striking feature of:
  1. Meningitis
  2. Nephritis
  3. Neuritis
  4. Dendritis
153. Colle's fracture refers to the injury of:
  1. Shoulder joint
  2. Knee joint
  3. Wrist joint
  4. Elbow joint
154. The lack of oxygen supply to myocardium of heart leads to:
  1. Fibrillation
  2. Heart failure
  3. Angina
  4. Infarction
155. Any disturbance that blocks the transmission of nerve impulse from SA node downwards is known as:
  1. Heart block
  2. Heart attack
  3. Nerve block
  4. Cardiac arrhythmias
156. The erosion of mucosal layer of stomach muscle is termed:
  1. Duodenal ulcer
  2. Gastric ulcer
  3. Chron's disease
  4. Diverticulitis
157. The inflammation and degeneration of liver parenchyma is referred as:
  1. Cirrhosis
  2. Jaundice
  3. Colitis
  4. Cystitis
158. Chovstek's sign is an indication of:
  1. Hypernatremia
  2. Hypercalcemia
  3. Hyponatremia
  4. Hypocalcemia
159. Hyperkalemia leads to what changes in ECG?
  1. Inverted T waves
  2. Tall T waves
  3. Prolonged QT interval
  4. Wide QRS complex
160. The amount of protein intake to be maintained during renal failure is:
  1. 40 to 60 g/day
  2. 60 to 80 g/day
  3. 20 to 40 g/day
  4. 80 to 100 g/day
161. The enzyme level which is found elevated after myocardial infarction is:
  1. Serum creatine
  2. Alkaline phosphatase
  3. Phosphokinase
  4. Creatine kinase
162. The position to be maintained for a pat-ient with increased ICP is:
  1. Fowler's position
  2. Trendelenburg's position
  3. Sidelying
  4. Supine position
163. Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by blocking the synthesis of:
  1. RBC's
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Vitamin K
164. The fetal movement felt by the mother during 20th week:
  1. Lightening
  2. Quickening
  3. Crowning
  4. Labor pain
165. Violet coloration of the mucus membrane of cervix and vagina at 4th week of pregnancy is termed:
  1. Chadwick's sign
  2. Hegar's sign
  3. Goodell's sign
  4. Rovsing's sign
166. Blood and debris discharge from the uterus after delivery is termed:
  1. Septic shock
  2. Lochia
  3. Pyuria
  4. Hematuria
167. Occurrence of seizures during pregnancy is termed:
  1. Eclampsia
  2. Preeclampsia732
  3. Epilepticus
  4. Myoclonus
168. The realignment of fetal head with the body after the head comes out:
  1. Expulsion
  2. Descent
  3. Engagement
  4. Restitution
169. An incision made into perineum to enlarge the vagina during delivery is:
  1. Amniotomy
  2. Episiotomy
  3. Cesarean
  4. Forceps delivery
170. Premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery is:
  1. Abruptio placenta
  2. Placenta previa
  3. Fetal distress
  4. Cord prolapse
171. The failure of uterus to return to its normal size is:
  1. Involution
  2. Subinvolution
  3. Protrusion
  4. Retraction
172. If a newborn's head and trunk is allowed to fall backward it elicits:
  1. Step in reflex
  2. Plantar reflex
  3. Startled reflex
  4. Moro reflex
173. A newborn who is above the 90th percentile on the Intrauterine Growth Curve is termed:
  1. Post-term Baby
  2. Large for Gestational Age
  3. Small for Gestational Age
  4. Preterm Baby
174. Crawling of an Infant occurs at:
  1. 8 to 9 months
  2. 2 to 3 months
  3. 4 to 5 months
  4. 6 to 8 months
175. The preferred site for giving IM injection to infants is:
  1. Gluteal
  2. Deltoid
  3. Vastus Lateralis
  4. Umbilicus
176. The main drug of choice for Heart Failure is:
  1. Decadron
  2. Digoxin
  3. Morphine
  4. Efcorlin
177. The procedure which involves giving a synchronized counter-shock to convert an undesirable rhythm to stable rhythm is:
  1. Defibrillation
  2. Cardiac Stimulator
  3. Pacemaker
  4. Cardioversion
178. Identify the calcium channel blocker from the following:
  1. Nifedipine
  2. Atenolol
  3. Lasix
  4. Mannitol
179. In chronic Renal Failure all the following noticed except:
  1. Anemia
  2. Hypocalcemia
  3. Metabolic Acidosis
  4. Hyperkalemia
180. Ego works based on the:
  1. Reality
  2. Pleasure
  3. Perfection
  4. Conscience
181. Gradual disappearance of conditioned response to stimuli is referred as:
  1. Negative conditioning
  2. Extinction
  3. Delayed conditioning
  4. Elimination
182. A defense mechanism that allows to convert our unacceptable behavior into acceptable form is:
  1. Introjection
  2. Sublimation
  3. Projection
  4. Displacement
183. Father of Intelligence test is:
  1. Alfred Binet
  2. Erick Erickson
  3. Alfred Adler
  4. Carl Jung733
184. The stage which keeps an individual physically alert to face the danger arising out of stress is termed:
  1. Adjustment reaction
  2. Stage of resistance
  3. Exhaustion stage
  4. Alarm reaction
185. Elevated mood with increased psychomotor activity is a characteristic feature of:
  1. Mania
  2. Euphoria
  3. Bipolar Disorder
  4. Dysthymia
186. Irrational fear related to closed spaces is referred as:
  1. Acrophobia
  2. Agoraphobia
  3. Claustrophobia
  4. Nosophobia
187. Loss of personal identity and wandering away from psychiatric hospital is referred as:
  1. Fugue
  2. Split personality
  3. Possession state
  4. Trance state
188. The voltage needed to produce seizures while giving ECT is:
  1. 180 to 220 volts
  2. 40 to 70 volts
  3. 150 to 180 volts
  4. 70 to 150 volts
189. The emotional state an individual experience to the loss of loved object is:
  1. Grief
  2. Mourning
  3. Bereavement
  4. Agony
190. Release of feelings that takes place by talking about an emotionally charged areas is:
  1. Clarification
  2. Abreaction
  3. Suggestion
  4. Exploration
191. Temporary discharge of the patient from the psychiatric hospital is referred as:
  1. Parole
  2. Abscond
  3. Termination
  4. Escape
192. The drug which is used to create aversion the Alcohol Dependence:
  1. Apomorphine
  2. Propanolol
  3. Diazepam
  4. Disulphiram
193. Serene is an example of:
  1. Antipsychotic
  2. Antidepressant
  3. Mood stabilizer
  4. Anxiolytic
194. The recording of conversation between the nurse and patient in a psychiatric set up is termed:
  1. Therapeutic communication
  2. Interview technique
  3. Process recording
  4. Case study
195. The function of gland which is affected in lithium toxicity is:
  1. Parathyroid
  2. Pituitary
  3. Adrenal
  4. Thyroid
196. A behavioral therapy of sudden, direct and maximum exposure to the fear producing stimulus:
  1. Biofeedback
  2. Flooding
  3. Desensitization
  4. Response prevention
197. The metal which is commonly used for family planning is:
  1. Copper
  2. Aluminum
  3. Iron
  4. Silver
198. One PHC covers a population of:
  1. 50,000
  2. 30,000
  3. 10,000
  4. One lakh
199. The Multipurpose Worker in general serves a rural population of:
  1. < 500
  2. 1000
  3. 3000
  4. 5000
200. The system of storing and transporting vaccines is termed:
  1. Cold chain
  2. Freezer chain
  3. Cool chain
  4. Vaccination734
ANSWER KEY
 
SECTION A
 
General Knowledge
1.
(d)
2.
(b)
3.
(c)
4.
(c)
5.
(d)
6.
(a)
7.
(c)
8.
(d)
9.
(a)
10.
(b)
11.
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(b)
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14.
(c)
15.
(b)
16.
(d)
17.
(a)
18.
(a)
19.
(a)
20.
(d)
 
General Intelligence and Reasoning Ability
21.
(d)
22.
(b)
23.
(d)
24.
(b)
25.
(c)
26.
(a)
27.
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(d)
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37.
(d)
38
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39.
(a)
40.
(b)
 
Arithmetical and Numerical Ability
41.
(c)
42.
(b)
43.
(c)
44.
(c)
45.
(b)
46.
(b)
47.
(a)
48.
(c)
49.
(a)
50.
(a)
51.
(d)
52.
(b)
53.
(c)
54.
(d)
55.
(a)
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(b)
57.
(d)
58.
(a)
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(c)
60.
(b)
 
61.
(a)
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(c)
63.
(b)
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(a)
65.
(c)
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(b)
67.
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(b)
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78.
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79.
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80.
(a)
78.
(c)
79.
(b)
80.
(a)
 
Test of Language: English
81.
(c)
82.
(b)
83.
(a)
84.
(b)
85.
(d)
86.
(c)
87.
(a)
88.
(b)
89.
(c)
90.
(b)
91.
(d)
92.
(d)
93.
(c)
94.
(b)
95.
(a)
96.
(c)
97.
(d)
98.
(a)
99.
(c)
100.
(b)
 
SECTION B
 
Post Specific-Related Questions
101.
(b)
102.
(d)
103.
(c)
104.
(b)
105.
(c)
106.
(a)
107.
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108.
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109.
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110.
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111.
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112.
(d)
113.
(c)
114.
(a)
115.
(d)
116.
(b)
117.
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118.
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119.
(b)
120.
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121.
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122.
(c)
123.
(b)
124.
(a)
125.
(d)
126.
(d)
127.
(a)
128.
(b)
129.
(a)
130.
(c)
131.
(b)
132.
(a)
133.
(c)
134.
(a)
135.
(d)735
136.
(a)
137.
(c)
138.
(b)
139.
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140.
(c)
141.
(a)
142.
(c)
143.
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144.
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145.
(b)
146.
(b)
147.
(a)
148.
(c)
149.
(a)
150.
(c)
151.
(b)
152.
(a)
153.
(c)
154.
(d)
155.
(a)
156.
(b)
157.
(a)
158.
(d)
159.
(b)
160.
(a)
161.
(d)
162.
(a)
163.
(d)
164.
(b)
165.
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166.
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167.
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168.
(d)
169.
(b)
170.
(a)
171.
(b)
172.
(d)
173.
(b)
174.
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175.
(c)
176.
(b)
177.
(d)
178.
(a)
179.
(d)
180
(a)
181.
(b)
182.
(b)
183.
(a)
184.
(d)
185.
(a)
186.
(c)
187.
(a)
188.
(d)
189.
(a)
190.
(b)
191.
(a)
192.
(d)
193.
(a)
194.
(c)
195.
(d)
196.
(b)
197
(a)
198.
(b)
199.
(d)
200.
(a)